Questions Testing

Geography-NCERT – PAITS-103

1 / 100

Q100. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Vegetation Type Location
1. Mangroves Coastal areas of West Ben-gal
2. Deciduous Forests Western Ghats
3. Thorn Forests Rajasthan
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2 / 100

Q99. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the natural vegetation of India?
1. India has diverse vegetation types ranging from tropical rainforests to temperate forests.
2. The major vegetation types in India are categorized into forests, grasslands, and deserts.
3. India’s vegetation is largely influenced by climate, soil, and topography.
How many of the above statements are correct?

3 / 100

Q98. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The retreating monsoon season is characterized by a decrease in rainfall and the onset of drier conditions across India.
Statement II: During this period, cyclonic disturbances may cause heavy rainfall in parts of southern India.

4 / 100

Q97. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the monsoon winds in India?
1. The southwest monsoon is the major rainy season for India, bringing moisture-laden winds from the Indian Ocean.
2. The northeast monsoon primarily affects the western coast of India, bringing rainfall from November to March.
3. The distribution of monsoon rainfall is uneven, with heavy rainfall in the western ghats and relatively dry conditions in the northwest.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 / 100

Q96. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: Groundwater recharge is an essential part of the hydrological cycle.
Statement II: Over-extraction of groundwater can disrupt the natural hydrological cycle.

6 / 100

Q95. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the hydrological cycle?
1. The hydrological cycle describes the continuous movement of water on, above, and below the Earth’s surface.
2. Evaporation, condensation, and precipitation are key processes in the hydrological cycle.
3. Human activities, such as deforestation and urbanization, can significantly alter the hydrological cycle.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

7 / 100

Q94. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Desert Location
1. Thar Desert Rajasthan
2. Cold Desert Ladakh
3. White Desert Rann of Kutch, Guja-rat
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

8 / 100

Q93. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the climate of India?
1. India has a tropical monsoon climate.
2. The Western Disturbances bring winter rainfall to northern India.
3. The Coromandel Coast experiences cyclones during the retreating monsoon season.
How many of the above statements are correct?

9 / 100

Q92. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: Land degradation in India is a significant issue due to deforestation, overgrazing, and improper agricul-tural practices.
Statement II: Measures like afforestation, soil conservation, and sustainable agricultural practices can help combat land degradation.

10 / 100

Q91. Which of the following statements is/are correct about land resources in India?
1. India has a high percentage of arable land compared to many other countries.
2. The availability of arable land in India has been decreasing due to urbanization and industrialization.
3. The government has implemented several land reforms to increase agricultural productivity.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

11 / 100

Q90. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Mountain Range State
1. Eastern Ghats Odisha
2. Satpura Range Madhya Pradesh
3. Karakoram Range Himachal Pra-desh
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

12 / 100

Q89. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Indian River Systems?
1. The Ganga River System is primarily fed by glaciers and monsoon rains.
2. The Narmada River flows through the Central Highlands and empties into the Bay of Bengal.
3. The Brahmaputra River flows from Tibet into India and eventually merges with the Ganga in Bangladesh.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

13 / 100

Q88. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The government has introduced incentives for the domestic manufacturing sector to increase exports.
Statement II: These incentives are aimed at reducing the dependency on imports and improving the trade balance.

14 / 100

Q87. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding India’s international trade in 2024?
1. India has signed new free trade agreements with several countries to boost exports.
2. The trade deficit has narrowed due to increased exports and decreased imports.
3. India’s major export partners include the USA, China, and the European Union.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

15 / 100

Q86. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The Brahmaputra River is known for its high sediment load and frequent changes in course.
Statement II: This is due to the steep gradient and high erosive power of the river in its upper reaches.

16 / 100

Q85. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Himalayan Rivers?
1. Himalayan rivers are perennial, fed by both melting snow and monsoon rains.
2. These rivers have a high potential for hydroelectric power generation.
3. Himalayan rivers form extensive deltas at their mouths.
How many of the above statements are correct?

17 / 100

Q84. Consider the following pairs:
River Origin
1. Ganga Gangotri Glacier
2. Godavari Western Ghats
3. Brahmaputra Kailash Range
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

18 / 100

Q83. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Western Ghats?
1. The Western Ghats are older than the Himalayas.
2. They run parallel to the western coast of India.
3. The Western Ghats are known for their rich biodiversity and are a UNESCO World Heritage site.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

19 / 100

Q82. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The Himalayas were formed due to the collision of the Indian and Eurasian tectonic plates.
Statement II: The Himalayas continue to rise due to ongoing tectonic activity.

20 / 100

Q81. Which of the following statements is/are correct about tectonic plates?
1. Tectonic plates are massive slabs of Earth’s lithosphere that move over the asthenosphere.
2. The movement of tectonic plates causes earthquakes, volcanic activity, and the formation of mountains.
3. The Mid-Atlantic Ridge is an example of a divergent plate boundary.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

21 / 100

Q80. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Soil Type Region
1. Alluvial Indo-Gangetic Plains
2. Black Deccan Plateau
3. Laterite Rajasthan
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

22 / 100

Q79. Which of the following statements is/are correct about India’s water resources?
1. The Ganga River Basin is the largest river basin in India.
2. Groundwater is a major source of irrigation in India.
3. The Indus Water Treaty governs the sharing of river waters between India and Pakistan.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

23 / 100

Q78. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: Over-reliance on non-renewable resources can lead to energy insecurity.
Statement II: Renewable resources offer a sustainable alternative to non-renewable resources.

24 / 100

Q77. Which of the following statements is/are true about non-renewable resources?
1. Non-renewable resources cannot be replenished within a human lifespan.
2. Coal and petroleum are examples of non-renewable resources.
3. Non-renewable resources are found in limited quantities.
How many of the above statements are correct?

25 / 100

Q76. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
National Park State
1. Kaziranga Assam
2. Sundarbans West Ben-gal
3. Gir Gujarat
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

26 / 100

Q75. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Indian coastline?
1. The Indian coastline is approximately 7,500 km long.
2. The Eastern Coastal Plains are broader and more fertile than the Western Coastal Plains.
3. The Konkan Coast is located on the western side of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

27 / 100

Q74. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The Union Budget 2024 has proposed increased spending on infrastructure.
Statement II: This increase in spending is aimed at boosting economic growth.

28 / 100

Q73. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Union Budget 2024?
1. The Union Budget 2024 emphasized green growth and sustainable development.
2. The Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana received increased funding.
3. The budget introduced new tax incentives for startups.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

29 / 100

Q72. Which of the following statements is/are correct about India’s natural vegetation?
1. Tropical evergreen forests are found in areas with high rainfall.
2. Deciduous forests shed their leaves in the dry season.
3. Alpine vegetation is found in the Himalayan region.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

30 / 100

Q71. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the drainage system of India?
1. The Ganga River system is the largest river system in India.
2. The Narmada River flows westward through a rift valley.
3. The Mahanadi River is a peninsular river that flows into the Bay of Bengal.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

31 / 100

Q70. Consider the following pairs:
Mountain Range Location
1. Aravalli Rajasthan
2. Vindhya Madhya Pradesh
3. Satpura Maharashtra
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

32 / 100

Q69. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Indian Ocean?
1. The Indian Ocean is the only ocean named after a country.
2. The Indian Ocean is the third-largest ocean in the world.
3. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are located in the Indian Ocean.
How many of the above statements are correct?

33 / 100

Q68. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The Earth’s rotation causes the Coriolis effect, influencing wind direction.
Statement II: The Coriolis effect is strongest at the equator.

34 / 100

Q67. Which of the following statements is/are true about Earth’s atmosphere?
1. The troposphere is the lowest layer of the atmosphere.
2. The stratosphere contains the ozone layer, which absorbs ultraviolet radiation.
3. The thermosphere is the hottest layer of the atmosphere.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

35 / 100

Q66. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
River Tribu-tary
1. Ganga Yamuna
2. Krishna Godavari
3. Narmada Tapi
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

36 / 100

Q65. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Indian monsoon?
1. The southwest monsoon brings most of the rainfall in India.
2. The northeast monsoon is responsible for winter rainfall in Tamil Nadu.
3. The monsoon season is characterized by high humidity and temperature.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

37 / 100

Q64. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: Sustainable development ensures that resources are available for future generations.
Statement II: Overexploitation of resources can lead to environmental degradation.

38 / 100

Q63. Which of the following statements is/are correct about renewable resources?
1. Renewable resources are replenished naturally over time.
2. Solar energy is an example of a renewable resource.
3. Fossil fuels are considered renewable resources.
How many of the above statements are correct?

39 / 100

Q62. Consider the following pairs:
Mineral Major Producing State
1. Bauxite Odisha
2. Limestone Madhya Pradesh
3. Copper Jharkhand
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

40 / 100

Q61. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Peninsular Plateau?
1. The Deccan Plateau is a part of the Peninsular Plateau.
2. The Peninsular Plateau is older than the Himalayas.
3. The Western Ghats are located along the eastern edge of the Deccan Plateau.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

41 / 100

Q60. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the economic development of India?
1. The Five-Year Plans focused on balanced regional development.
2. Liberalization policies led to the growth of the private sector in India.
3. The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) was introduced to provide employment opportuni-ties in rural areas.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

42 / 100

Q59. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Region Main Agricultural Crop
1. Punjab Wheat
2. West Bengal Rice
3. Maharashtra Tea
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

43 / 100

Q58. Consider the following statements about the natural resources of India:
1. India has the world’s largest reserves of mica.
2. Rajasthan is the leading producer of marble in India.
3. Karnataka is known for its rich deposits of iron ore.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

44 / 100

Q57. Which of the following are types of resources classified by their origin?
1. Biotic resources
2. Abiotic resources
3. Renewable resources How many of the above statements are correct?

45 / 100

Q56. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding India’s natural vegetation?
1. The Western Ghats are covered with tropical evergreen forests.
2. Mangrove forests are found in the delta regions of the Ganga and Brahmaputra.
3. The thorn forests of Rajasthan are adapted to arid conditions.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

46 / 100

Q55. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The Great Indian Desert, or Thar Desert, is located in the northwestern part of India.
Statement II: The desert is characterized by sandy terrain and sparse vegetation.

47 / 100

Q54. Consider the following pairs:
River Origin
1. Godavari Western Ghats
2. Kaveri Brahmagiri Hills
3. Tapti Satpura Range
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

48 / 100

Q53. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the coastal plains of India?
1. The Western Coastal Plains are narrower than the Eastern Coastal Plains.
2. The Eastern Coastal Plains are known for their fertile delta regions.
3. The Konkan Coast is part of the Eastern Coastal Plains.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

49 / 100

Q52. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The Union Budget 2024 has increased allocation for the health sector.
Statement II: This increase is aimed at improving healthcare infrastructure in rural areas.

50 / 100

Q51. Which of the following statements is/are correct about India’s renewable energy sector in 2024?
1. Solar energy is the largest contributor to India’s renewable energy capacity.
2. The government has set a target of achieving 50% of its energy needs from renewable sources by 2030.
3. Offshore wind energy projects have been launched on the western coast of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

51 / 100

Q50. Consider the following statements about the Himalayan rivers:
1. The Ganga River originates from the Gangotri Glacier in the Himalayas.
2. The Brahmaputra River enters India through Arunachal Pradesh.
3. The Yamuna River is a tributary of the Ganga River.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

52 / 100

Q49. Which of the following are major cropping seasons in India?
1. Kharif
2. Rabi
3. Zaid
How many of the above statements are correct?

53 / 100

Q48. Which of the following statements is/are correct about India’s climate?
1. The monsoon is the dominant climate pattern in India.
2. The Thar Desert receives less than 250 mm of rainfall annually.
3. The Northeastern region of India is the wettest part of the country.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

54 / 100

Q47. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The Western Ghats are a UNESCO World Heritage site known for their rich biodiversity.
Statement II: The Eastern Ghats are older and more eroded than the Western Ghats.

55 / 100

Q46. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding Indian transport?
1. National Highways are the backbone of India’s road network.
2. The Golden Quadrilateral connects the four major metropolitan cities of India.
3. Inland waterways are extensively used for cargo transport in India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

56 / 100

Q45. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Industry Location
1. Cotton Textile Mumbai, Maharash-tra
2. Iron and Steel Bhilai, Chhattisgarh
3. IT Industry Bengaluru, Karna-taka
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

57 / 100

Q44. Consider the following statements about the Earth’s tectonic plates:
1. The movement of tectonic plates is responsible for the formation of mountains.
2. Plate boundaries can be convergent, divergent, or transform.
3. The Himalayas are an example of mountains formed by the collision of two tectonic plates.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

58 / 100

Q43. Which of the following are characteristics of the monsoon climate in India?
1. Seasonal reversal of winds
2. High rainfall during the summer months
3. A distinct wet and dry season
How many of the above statements are correct?

59 / 100

Q42. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: Deforestation is a major cause of soil erosion in India.
Statement II: Soil erosion can lead to a decrease in agricultural productivity.

60 / 100

Q41. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding soil types in India?
1. Black soil is ideal for growing cotton due to its moisture-retaining capacity.
2. Laterite soil is rich in nitrogen and potassium.
3. Alluvial soil is the most widespread soil type in India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

61 / 100

Q40. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the Himalayan region?
1. The Eastern Himalayas are known for their rich biodiversity.
2. The Western Himalayas experience higher annual rainfall compared to the Eastern Himalayas.
3. The Himalayas act as a barrier to the cold winds from Central Asia.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

62 / 100

Q39. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are located in the Bay of Bengal.
Statement II: These islands are of volcanic origin.

63 / 100

Q38. Consider the following pairs:
Pass Mountain Range
1. Zoji La Karakoram Range
2. Nathula Eastern Himala-yas
3. Rohtang Pass Pir Panjal Range
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

64 / 100

Q37. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Indian rivers?
1. The Brahmaputra is known for its shifting channels and high sediment load.
2. The Narmada River is the longest west-flowing river in India.
3. The Mahanadi River basin is highly prone to flooding.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

65 / 100

Q36. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The Union Budget 2024 introduced a new tax slab for middle-income earners.
Statement II: This tax slab was introduced as a measure to simplify the tax system.

66 / 100

Q35. Which of the following statements is/are correct about India’s digital economy initiatives in 2024?
1. The government has launched a Digital India 2.0 initiative focused on expanding broadband connectivity.
2. A new policy for the regulation of cryptocurrencies has been introduced.
3. The focus on Artificial Intelligence (AI) is being strengthened with the establishment of AI research hubs.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

67 / 100

Q34. Consider the following statements about Indian agriculture:
1. Rice and wheat are the two major food crops grown in India.
2. Pulses are the main source of protein in the Indian diet.
3. The Green Revolution had a significant impact on the production of pulses in India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

68 / 100

Q33. Which of the following are significant causes of desertification in India?
1. Overgrazing
2. Deforestation
3. Climate change
How many of the above statements are correct?

69 / 100

Q32. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding India’s major rivers?
1. The Ganga is the longest river within India.
2. The Godavari is often referred to as the Dakshin Ganga due to its size and course.
3. The Narmada and Tapi rivers flow into the Bay of Bengal.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

70 / 100

Q31. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The Deccan Plateau is located in southern India and is known for its rich mineral resources.
Statement II: The Western Ghats form the western edge of the Deccan Plateau.

71 / 100

Q30. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the Indian economy post-independence?
1. The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 laid the foundation for a mixed economy.
2. The Green Revolution led to the growth of the agricultural sector in India.
3. Economic liberalization in the 1990s led to the privatization of many public sector enterprises.
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72 / 100

Q29. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Mountain Range Region
1. Aravalli Range Northwestern India
2. Western Ghats Eastern Coast of India
3. Eastern Ghats Western Coast of In-dia
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

73 / 100

Q28. Consider the following statements about the Earth’s atmosphere:
1. The troposphere is the lowest layer of the atmosphere, where most weather phenomena occur.
2. The stratosphere contains the ozone layer, which absorbs harmful ultraviolet radiation from the sun.
3. The mesosphere is the layer where meteors burn up upon entering the Earth’s atmosphere.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

74 / 100

Q27. Which of the following are features of tropical rainforests?
1. High biodiversity
2. Poor soil fertility
3. Presence of a continuous canopy
How many of the above statements are correct?

75 / 100

Q26. Which of the following is/are correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: India has significant reserves of coal, which are primarily located in the eastern states.
Statement II: The majority of coal reserves in India are of the lignite variety.

76 / 100

Q25. Consider the following types of irrigation in India:
1. Canal irrigation
2. Tank irrigation
3. Drip irrigation
Which of the above is/are traditional methods of irrigation in India?

77 / 100

Q24. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: India signed a free trade agreement (FTA) with Australia in February 2024.
Statement II: The FTA includes provisions for reducing tariffs on agricultural products.

78 / 100

Q23. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Union Budget 2024?
1. The budget has allocated significant funds towards renewable energy projects.
2. There is an increased focus on improving infrastructure in the Northeastern states.
3. The budget has introduced a new tax regime for digital assets.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

79 / 100

Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the Green Revolution in India:
1. It led to a significant increase in food grain production, particularly in the states of Punjab and Haryana.
2. The Green Revolution primarily focused on wheat and rice cultivation.
3. The use of chemical fertilizers and high-yield variety seeds was a key component of the Green Revolution.
How many of the above statements are correct?

80 / 100

Q21. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Natural Hazard Region Prone to Haz-ard
1. Cyclones Eastern Coast of India
2. Earthquakes Western Ghats
3. Floods Indo-Gangetic Plain
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

81 / 100

Q20. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the hydrological cycle?
1. Evaporation of water from the Earth’s surface is primarily driven by solar energy.
2. Precipitation occurs when water vapor in the atmosphere condenses into water droplets.
3. Groundwater forms a part of the hydrological cycle as it moves between various reservoirs like rivers, lakes, and oceans.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

82 / 100

Q19. Consider the following statements regarding the tectonic plates:
1. The lithosphere is divided into several large and small tectonic plates.
2. The movement of these plates is caused by convection currents in the mantle.
3. Tectonic activity, including earthquakes and volcanic eruptions, is concentrated along the boundaries of these plates. How many of the above statements are correct?

83 / 100

Q18. Which of the following are the characteristics of black soil?
1. It is moisture-retentive and suitable for cotton cultivation.
2. It has high clay content.
3. It is rich in iron, magnesium, and aluminum.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

84 / 100

Q17. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: Laterite soils are found in regions with high temperature and heavy rainfall.
Statement II: These soils are rich in nitrogen but poor in organic matter.

85 / 100

Q16. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the climate of India?
1. The retreating monsoon season is associated with cyclonic storms in the Bay of Bengal.
2. The Coromandel Coast receives rainfall during the retreating monsoon season.
3. The Aravalli Range acts as a barrier to the monsoon winds, leading to heavy rainfall in Rajasthan.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

86 / 100

Q15. Which of the following statements are true regarding the Western Coastal Plains of India?
1. They are narrower compared to the Eastern Coastal Plains.
2. The Western Coastal Plains are divided into three sections: Konkan, Kannad, and Malabar.
3. The Western Coastal Plains are characterized by several lagoons and backwaters.
How many of the above statements are correct?

87 / 100

Q14. Consider the following pairs:
National Park State
1. Kaziranga Assam
2. Sundarbans West Ben-gal
3. Gir Gujarat
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

88 / 100

Q13. Which of the following are characteristic features of the Indian monsoon?
1. Seasonal reversal of wind patterns
2. Heavy rainfall during the summer months
3. Influence of the Himalayas in diverting the monsoon winds
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

89 / 100

Q12. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the recent changes in India’s foreign direct invest-ment (FDI) policy?
1. The government has allowed 100% FDI in the defense sector under the automatic route.
2. FDI in the insurance sector has been increased to 74% under the automatic route.
3. FDI in digital news media has been capped at 26%.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

90 / 100

Q11. Consider the following statements regarding the India-UAE Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA):
1. It aims to boost bilateral trade between the two nations.
2. The agreement includes provisions for technology transfer in the energy sector.
3. CEPA also addresses concerns related to labor mobility.
How many of the above statements are correct?

91 / 100

Q10. Which of the following statements about the distribution of natural resources in India is/are correct?
1. Coal is primarily found in the states of Jharkhand, Odisha, and Chhattisgarh.
2. Iron ore deposits are abundant in Karnataka, Odisha, and Chhattisgarh.
3. Natural gas reserves are concentrated in the north-eastern part of India.
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92 / 100

Q9. Which of the following regions in India are prone to earthquakes due to their location near tectonic plate boundaries?
1. The Himalayan region
2. The Western Ghats
3. The Indo-Gangetic Plain
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

93 / 100

Q8. Which of the following statements are true regarding the Earth’s atmosphere?
1. The troposphere is the layer where most weather phenomena occur.
2. The stratosphere contains the ozone layer, which absorbs ultraviolet radiation.
3. The mesosphere is the coldest layer of the atmosphere.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

94 / 100

7.Which of the following factors influence the climate of a region?
1. Latitude
2. Altitude
3. Ocean currents
4. Wind patterns
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

95 / 100

6.Which of the following is/are the primary causes of soil erosion in India?
1. Deforestation
2. Overgrazing by livestock
3. Industrial pollution
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

96 / 100

Q5. Consider the following pairs:
Soil Type
Primary Region
1. Alluvial Soil
Indo-Gangetic Plain
2. Black Soil
Deccan Plateau
3. Red Soil
Coastal Plains
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

97 / 100

Q4. Consider the following statements:
1. The Western Ghats are higher in elevation compared to the Eastern Ghats.
2. The Eastern Ghats are older and more eroded than the Western Ghats.
3. The Western Ghats are continuous and not interrupted by rivers, unlike the Eastern Ghats.
How many of the above statements are correct?

98 / 100

Q3. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The Thar Desert is primarily found in the state of Rajasthan.
Statement II: The Thar Desert extends into the neighboring states of Gujarat and Punjab.

99 / 100

Q2. Which of the following rivers is/are east-flowing and drain(s) into the Bay of Bengal?
1. Mahanadi
2. Narmada
3. Godavari
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

100 / 100

Q1. Consider the following pairs:
Mountain Range
Highest Peak
1. Aravalli Range
Guru Shikhar
2. Vindhya Range
Dhupgarh
3. Satpura Range
Mahendragiri
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

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PAITS-104

1 / 100

Q1. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. The Indus Valley Civilization is known for its advanced urban planning and architecture.
2. The major cities of the Indus Valley Civilization include Harappa, Mohenjo-Daro, and Lothal.
3. The Indus Valley Civilization was primarily a pastoral society.

2 / 100

Q2. Consider the following statements:
1. The Rigveda is the oldest of the four Vedas and was composed in Sanskrit.
2. The Upanishads primarily deal with philosophical concepts and the nature of the universe.
3. The Vedas were written down during the Mauryan period.
How many of the above statements are correct?

3 / 100

Q3. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Civilization Notable Feature
1. Harappa Advanced urban planning
2. Mohenjo-Daro Primary pastoral society
3. Lothal Well-planned dockyards

4 / 100

Q4. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The Indus Valley Civilization had significant achievements in urban planning and architecture.
Statement II: The society was predominantly pastoral with limited urban development.

5 / 100

Q5. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. The Mauryan Empire is known for its significant administrative and military achievements.
2. Ashoka’s edicts reflect his commitment to Buddhism and moral governance.
3. The Mauryan Empire collapsed immediately after Ashoka’s reign.

6 / 100

Q6. Consider the following statements:
1. The Harappan Civilization was the first to develop a system of standardized weights and measures.
2. The concept of “Dharma” in the Vedic period was primarily associated with social duties and responsibilities.
3. The Ashokan edicts were primarily written in Brahmi script and were spread across the Indian subcontinent.
How many of the above statements are correct?

7 / 100

Q7. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Emperor Notable Achievement
1. Ashoka Edicts promoting Buddhism and moral governance
2. Chandragupta Immediate collapse of the empire after his reign
3. Bindusara Administrative and military achievements

8 / 100

Q8. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: Ashoka is renowned for his support of Buddhism and his edicts promoting moral values.
Statement II: The Mauryan Empire faced immediate collapse after Ashoka’s reign.

9 / 100

Q9. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. The First World War significantly altered the political landscape of Europe and Asia.
2. The Treaty of Versailles led to the establishment of the League of Nations.
3. The Bolshevik Revolution was a result of economic and social discontent in Russia.

10 / 100

Q10. Consider the following statements:
1. The Gupta Empire is known for its advancements in science and mathematics, including the concept of zero.
2. The Gupta rulers were patrons of Buddhism, and several Buddhist monasteries were built during their reign.
3. Kalidasa, one of India’s greatest poets, lived during the Gupta period.
How many of the above statements are correct?

11 / 100

Q11. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Event Outcome/Significance
1. Treaty of Versailles Establishment of the League of Nations
2. Bolshevik Revolution Economic and social reforms in the USSR
3. First World War Formation of the United Nations

12 / 100

Q12. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The Treaty of Versailles led to significant geopolitical changes and the formation of the League of Na-tions.
Statement II: The Bolshevik Revolution was primarily a result of Russia’s military defeats in World War I.

13 / 100

Q13. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. The Mughal Empire’s administrative system was highly centralized and bureaucratic.
2. Akbar’s policies were characterized by religious tolerance and efforts at integration.
3. Aurangzeb’s reign saw the consolidation of Mughal territories through military conquests.

14 / 100

Q14. Consider the following statements:
1. The Bhakti movement emphasized the worship of personal gods and rejected the caste system.
2. The Sufi movement was characterized by its emphasis on mysticism and a direct relationship with God.
3. The Bhakti and Sufi movements were both opposed to the use of vernacular languages in religious practices.
How many of the above statements are correct?

15 / 100

Q15. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Mughal Emperor Policy/Action
1. Akbar Religious tolerance and integration
2. Aurangzeb Centralized administration
3. Shah Jahan Military consolidation through conquests

16 / 100

Q16. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: Akbar’s reign was marked by his efforts to integrate diverse communities through religious tolerance.
Statement II: Aurangzeb’s policies were similar to Akbar’s in promoting integration and tolerance.

17 / 100

Q17. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. The new economic reforms introduced in India in March 2024 focus on increasing investment in the manu-facturing sector.
2. Recent climate policies aim to reduce carbon emissions by 30% by 2030.
3. The latest bilateral trade agreement with a neighboring country emphasizes the reduction of tariffs on agri-cultural products.

18 / 100

Q18. Consider the following statements:
1. The Maratha Empire was established by Shivaji in the 17th century.
2. The Peshwas were the hereditary prime ministers of the Maratha Empire.
3. The Treaty of Purandar was signed between Shivaji and Aurangzeb.
How many of the above statements are correct?

19 / 100

Q19. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Current Affair Detail
1. Economic Reforms Focus on manufacturing sector investment
2. Climate Policies Aim to reduce carbon emissions by 30% by 2030
3. Bilateral Trade Agreement Emphasizes tariff reduction on agricultural prod-ucts

20 / 100

Q20. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The recent economic reforms are aimed at boosting investment in specific sectors and improving overall economic growth.
Statement II: The latest climate policies are designed to address immediate local issues rather than global concerns.

21 / 100

Q21. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. The Vedic texts are primarily divided into two categories: Samhitas and Brahmanas.
2. The Rigveda is the oldest of the four Vedas and consists mainly of hymns.
3. The Vedic period is characterized by extensive urbanization and advanced technology.

22 / 100

Q22. Consider the following statements:
1. The Treaty of Alinagar was signed between the British East India Company and Siraj-ud-Daulah.
2. The Battle of Plassey marked the beginning of British rule in India.
3. The Treaty of Allahabad was signed after the Battle of Buxar, giving the British the right to collect revenue in Bengal.
How many of the above statements are correct?

23 / 100

Q23. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Text Description
1. Rigveda Hymns and earliest Vedic text
2. Samhitas Collections of hymns
3. Brahmanas Ritualistic texts

24 / 100

Q24. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The Rigveda is the most ancient Vedic text and consists primarily of hymns.
Statement II: The Vedic period is known for its extensive urbanization and advanced technology.

25 / 100

Q25. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. The Gupta Empire is known for its contributions to science, art, and literature.
2. The reign of Chandragupta I is considered the beginning of the Gupta Empire.
3. The Gupta period saw the emergence of Bhakti movement.

26 / 100

Q26. Consider the following statements:
1. The Ilbert Bill controversy took place during the tenure of Lord Ripon.
2. The Indian National Congress was founded by A.O. Hume in 1885.
3. The first session of the Indian National Congress was held in Bombay.
How many of the above statements are correct?

27 / 100

Q27. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Empire Notable Achievement
1. Gupta Empire Contributions to science and litera-ture
2. Chandragupta I Beginning of the Gupta Empire
3. Gupta Period Emergence of the Bhakti movement

28 / 100

Q28. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The Gupta Empire is renowned for its advancements in science, art, and literature.
Statement II: The Bhakti movement began during the Gupta period.

29 / 100

Q29. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. The rise of nationalism in Europe was significantly influenced by the French Revolution.
2. The Congress of Vienna aimed to restore the pre-revolutionary order in Europe.
3. The impact of World War I led to the formation of the European Union.

30 / 100

Q30. Consider the following statements:
1. The Swadeshi Movement was launched in response to the partition of Bengal in 1905.
2. The All India Muslim League was founded in 1906 in Dhaka.
3. The Lucknow Pact of 1916 was an agreement between the Indian National Congress and the British government.
How many of the above statements are correct?

31 / 100

Q31. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Event Impact/Outcome
1. French Revolution Rise of nationalism in Europe
2. Congress of Vienna Restoration of pre-revolutionary order
3. World War I Formation of the European Union

32 / 100

Q32. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The French Revolution played a crucial role in the rise of nationalism across Europe.
Statement II: The formation of the European Union was a direct result of World War I.

33 / 100

Q33. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. The Chola Empire is known for its extensive maritime activities and temple architecture.
2. Rajaraja Chola I’s reign marked the peak of Chola influence in South India.
3. The Chola administration was known for its decentralized governance.

34 / 100

Q34. Consider the following statements:
1. The Non-Cooperation Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920 after the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre.
2. The Simon Commission was boycotted by all sections of the Indian political spectrum.
3. The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress in 1929 declared “Purna Swaraj” as the goal of the Con-gress.
How many of the above statements are correct?

35 / 100

Q35. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Empire Feature/Contribution
1. Chola Empire Maritime activities and temple architec-ture
2. Rajaraja Chola I Peak of Chola influence in South India
3. Chola Admin Decentralized governance

36 / 100

Q36. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The Chola Empire is famous for its contributions to maritime trade and temple architecture.
Statement II: The Chola administration was known for its highly centralized governance structure.

37 / 100

Q37. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. The recent health initiative aims to provide universal healthcare access by 2025.
2. The new trade policies focus on reducing import duties on technology products.
3. The government has proposed a new education reform to enhance digital literacy in rural areas.

38 / 100

Q38. Consider the following statements:
1. The Cripps Mission of 1942 proposed Indian Dominion status after World War II.
2. The Quit India Movement was launched in response to the failure of the Cripps Mission.
3. The Cabinet Mission of 1946 recommended the partition of India into two separate states.
How many of the above statements are correct?

39 / 100

Q39. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Current Affair Detail
1. Health Initiative Universal healthcare access by 2025
2. Trade Policies Reducing import duties on technology products
3. Education Reform Enhancing digital literacy in rural areas

40 / 100

Q40. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The recent health initiative is aimed at ensuring universal healthcare access by 2025.
Statement II: The new trade policies are focused on enhancing technology exports rather than reducing import duties.

41 / 100

Q41. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. The Delhi Sultanate was founded by Qutb-ud-din Aibak after the fall of the Ghaznavid Empire.
2. The architectural achievements of the Delhi Sultanate include the Qutub Minar and the Red Fort.
3. The Sultanate period saw the rise of several regional powers like the Mamluks and the Khaljis.

42 / 100

Q42. Consider the following statements:
1. The First Anglo-Mysore War ended with the Treaty of Madras in 1769.
2. The Third Anglo-Mysore War resulted in the death of Tipu Sultan.
3. The Fourth Anglo-Mysore War led to the complete annexation of Mysore by the British.
How many of the above statements are correct?

43 / 100

Q43. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Period Feature/Contribution
1. Delhi Sultanate Founded by Qutb-ud-din Ai-bak
2. Architecture Qutub Minar and the Red Fort
3. Regional Powers Mamluks and Khaljis

44 / 100

Q44. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The Delhi Sultanate was established by Qutb-ud-din Aibak following the fall of the Ghaznavid Empire.
Statement II: The Red Fort is an architectural achievement of the Mughal Empire, not the Delhi Sultanate.

45 / 100

Q45. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. The Mughal Empire reached its zenith under Akbar the Great.
2. The Mughal administration was known for its system of land revenue called the Mansabdari system.
3. The Mughal period saw significant religious tolerance and cultural integration.

46 / 100

Q46. Consider the following statements:
1. The Ryotwari system was introduced by the British in the Madras and Bombay Presidencies.
2. The Mahalwari system was prevalent in Bengal and Bihar.
3. The Zamindari system was abolished by the British after the Revolt of 1857.
How many of the above statements are correct?

47 / 100

Q47. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Mughal Feature Description
1. Zenith of Empire Akbar the Great
2. Administrative System Mansabdari system
3. Religious Tolerance Significant cultural integration

48 / 100

Q48. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The Mughal Empire is recognized for its significant achievements under Akbar and its system of land revenue.
Statement II: The Mughal period was characterized by considerable religious intolerance.

49 / 100

Q49. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. The Indian Independence movement saw the emergence of both the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League.
2. The partition of India in 1947 was primarily due to the failure of the Cripps Mission.
3. The Nehru Report of 1928 was a response to the Simon Commission and aimed to propose constitutional reforms.

50 / 100

Q50. Consider the following statements:
1. The Indian Councils Act of 1861 marked the beginning of representative institutions in India.
2. The Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909 introduced separate electorates for Muslims.
3. The Government of India Act of 1935 introduced provincial autonomy in India.
How many of the above statements are correct?

51 / 100

Q51. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Event Detail
1. Independence Movement Emergence of Indian National Congress and Muslim League
2. Partition of India Failure of Cripps Mission
3. Nehru Report Response to the Simon Commission

52 / 100

Q52. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The Indian National Congress and the Muslim League both played significant roles in the Indian Inde-pendence movement.
Statement II: The Cripps Mission’s failure was the main cause for the partition of India.

53 / 100

Q53. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. The Mauryan Empire was founded by Chandragupta Maurya.
2. Ashoka’s edicts primarily promoted the principles of Jainism.
3. The Mauryan administration was known for its highly centralized governance structure.

54 / 100

Q54. Consider the following statements:
1. The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place in Amritsar in 1919.
2. The Hunter Commission was appointed to investigate the massacre.
3. The Rowlatt Act, which allowed detention without trial, was the immediate cause of the massacre.
How many of the above statements are correct?

55 / 100

Q55. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Empire Feature/Contribution
1. Mauryan Empire Founded by Chandragupta Maurya
2. Ashoka’s Edicts Promoted principles of Jainism
3. Mauryan Admin Highly centralized governance structure

56 / 100

Q56. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: Chandragupta Maurya established the Mauryan Empire, known for its centralized governance.
Statement II: Ashoka’s edicts primarily promoted the principles of Buddhism, not Jainism.

57 / 100

Q57. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. The Harappan Civilization was known for its well-planned cities and advanced drainage systems.
2. The Vedic period is characterized by the composition of the Vedas in Sanskrit.
3. The Mauryan Empire is known for its significant contributions to art and architecture, including the construction of the Ajanta and Ellora Caves.

58 / 100

Q58. Consider the following statements:
1. The Indian National Army (INA) was founded by Subhas Chandra Bose in Singapore.
2. The INA played a significant role in the Quit India Movement.
3. The INA’s slogan “Jai Hind” became a symbol of Indian patriotism.
How many of the above statements are correct?

59 / 100

Q59. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Period Feature/Contribution
1. Harappan Civilization Well-planned cities and drainage sys-tems
2. Vedic Period Composition of the Vedas in Sanskrit
3. Mauryan Empire Ajanta and Ellora Caves

60 / 100

Q60. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The Harappan Civilization was notable for its advanced urban planning and sanitation.
Statement II: The Ajanta and Ellora Caves are associated with the Mauryan Empire.

61 / 100

Q61. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. The British East India Company established its first trading post in Calcutta.
2. The Revolt of 1857, also known as the Sepoy Mutiny, led to the end of the Mughal Empire and the beginning of British Crown rule in India.
3. The Indian National Congress was founded in 1885 and initially aimed at seeking reforms within the British administration.

62 / 100

Q62. Consider the following statements:
1. The Doctrine of Lapse was a policy introduced by Lord Dalhousie.
2. Under the Doctrine of Lapse, the British annexed states where the ruler died without a male heir.
3. The Doctrine of Lapse was one of the causes of the Revolt of 1857.
How many of the above statements are correct?

63 / 100

Q63. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Event Detail
1. Trading Post First established in Calcutta
2. Revolt of 1857 End of Mughal Empire and start of British Crown rule
3. Indian National Congress Founded in 1885 for administrative reforms

64 / 100

Q64. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The British East India Company established its first trading post in Calcutta, and the Revolt of 1857 ended the Mughal Empire.
Statement II: The Indian National Congress was initially set up to seek complete independence from British rule.

65 / 100

Q65. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. The Chola Dynasty is known for its contributions to Dravidian architecture, including the Brihadeeswarar Temple.
2. The Vijayanagara Empire was known for its significant advancements in metallurgy and its impressive urban planning.
3. The Mughals ruled over India from the 15th to the 19th century, with Akbar being one of the prominent em-perors.

66 / 100

Q66. Consider the following statements:
1. The Vernacular Press Act of 1878 was aimed at curbing the freedom of the Indian press.
2. The Act allowed the British government to confiscate the printing press of any Indian newspaper that pub-lished “seditious” material.
3. The Act was repealed in 1881 due to widespread protests.
How many of the above statements are correct?

67 / 100

Q67. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Dynasty/Empire Contribution/Feature
1. Chola Dynasty Dravidian architecture, Brihadeeswarar Tem-ple
2. Vijayanagara Empire Advancements in metallurgy, urban planning
3. Mughal Empire Ruling period from 15th to 19th century

68 / 100

Q68. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The Chola Dynasty is renowned for its Dravidian architecture.
Statement II: The Vijayanagara Empire made notable contributions to metallurgy, while the Mughal Empire’s rule extended from the 15th to the 19th century.

69 / 100

Q69. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. The Mauryan Empire was known for its administrative divisions into provinces called “Satraps.”
2. The Gupta period is often regarded as the Golden Age of India due to its achievements in art, science, and literature.
3. The arrival of the Portuguese in India marked the beginning of European colonialism in the 15th century.

70 / 100

Q70. Consider the following statements:
1. The Poona Pact of 1932 was an agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and B.R. Ambedkar.
2. The Pact was signed to provide separate electorates for the Scheduled Castes.
3. The Poona Pact ensured reserved seats for the Scheduled Castes in the provincial legislatures.
How many of the above statements are correct?

71 / 100

Q71. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Period/Dynasty Feature/Contribution
1. Mauryan Empire Administrative divisions as Satraps
2. Gupta Period Golden Age achievements
3. Portuguese Arrival Beginning of European colonialism in 15th centu-ry

72 / 100

Q72. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The Mauryan Empire was notable for its administrative divisions known as “Satraps.”
Statement II: The Gupta period is considered the Golden Age of India due to its advancements in multiple fields.

73 / 100

Q73.Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. The Industrial Revolution in Britain led to significant technological advancements, including the develop-ment of the steam engine.
2. The Indian independence movement saw various phases, including the revolutionary activities of the Ghadar Party.
3. The partition of India in 1947 was primarily a result of the conflict between the Indian National Congress and the British Crown.

74 / 100

Q74. Consider the following statements:
1. The Subsidiary Alliance was a system introduced by Lord Wellesley.
2. Under the Subsidiary Alliance, Indian rulers were required to maintain British troops at their own expense.
3. The Subsidiary Alliance was a means of extending British control over Indian states without direct annexation.
How many of the above statements are correct?

75 / 100

Q75. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Event/Period Detail/Impact
1. Industrial Revolution Development of the steam engine
2. Indian Independence Movement Revolutionary activities of the Ghadar Party
3. Partition of India Result of the conflict between Indian National Congress and the British Crown

76 / 100

Q76. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The Industrial Revolution led to significant advancements such as the steam engine, and the Ghadar Party was active in the Indian independence movement.
Statement II: The partition of India was primarily caused by the conflict between the Indian National Congress and the British Crown.

77 / 100

Q77. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. The Delhi Sultanate was established by Qutb-ud-din Aibak and was characterized by its administrative innovations.
2. The Mughal Empire reached its zenith under the rule of Aurangzeb, who expanded its boundaries significantly.
3. The Maratha Empire, founded by Shivaji, was known for its naval strength and guerrilla warfare tactics.

78 / 100

Q78. Consider the following statements:
1. The Charter Act of 1813 allowed Christian missionaries to preach in India.
2. The Act also ended the monopoly of the British East India Company over trade in India, except for tea and opium.
3. The Act introduced a system of public education in India, funded by the British government.
How many of the above statements are correct?

79 / 100

Q79. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Dynasty/Empire Feature/Contribution
1. Delhi Sultanate Administrative innovations
2. Mughal Empire Zenith under Aurangzeb
3. Maratha Empire Naval strength and guerrilla tactics

80 / 100

Q80. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The Delhi Sultanate was known for its administrative innovations and the Mughal Empire expanded under Aurangzeb.
Statement II: The Maratha Empire, founded by Shivaji, was notable for its naval strength and guerrilla tactics.

81 / 100

Q81. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. The American Revolution of 1776 was influenced by the Enlightenment ideas of liberty and democracy.
2. The French Revolution led to the rise of Napoleon Bonaparte, who established the Napoleonic Code.
3. The establishment of the United Nations after World War II aimed to prevent future global conflicts and promote international cooperation.

82 / 100

Q82. Consider the following statements:
1. The Permanent Settlement of Bengal was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in 1793.
2. The settlement created a new class of landlords with hereditary rights over land.
3. The Permanent Settlement was successful in increasing agricultural productivity and revenue collection.
How many of the above statements are correct?

83 / 100

Q83. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Event/Period Detail/Impact
1. American Revolution Influenced by Enlightenment ideas
2. French Revolution Rise of Napoleon Bonaparte and Napoleonic Code
3. Establishment of United Nations Aimed at preventing global conflicts

84 / 100

Q84. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The American and French Revolutions were influenced by Enlightenment ideas, and the United Nations was established to prevent global conflicts.
Statement II: Napoleon Bonaparte did not establish the Napoleonic Code.

85 / 100

Q85. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. The arrival of the Portuguese in India led to the establishment of a colonial trading network along the western coast.
2. The Mughal Empire’s decline was hastened by the invasions of Nadir Shah and Ahmad Shah Abdali.
3. The Indian Rebellion of 1857 was a result of multiple factors, including military grievances and socio-religious issues.

86 / 100

Q86. Consider the following statements:
1. The Ilbert Bill proposed allowing Indian judges to preside over cases involving British citizens.
2. The bill was strongly opposed by the British community in India, leading to its withdrawal.
3. The Ilbert Bill controversy was a turning point in the Indian nationalist movement, leading to the formation of the Indian National Congress.
How many of the above statements are correct?

87 / 100

Q87. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Event/Period Detail/Impact
1. Portuguese Arrival Colonial trading network on the western coast
2. Mughal Decline Invasions of Nadir Shah and Ahmad Shah Abdali
3. Indian Rebellion of 1857 Result of military grievances and socio-religious is-sues

88 / 100

Q88. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The Portuguese established a colonial trading network along the western coast, and the Mughal decline was hastened by invasions.
Statement II: The Indian Rebellion of 1857 was solely due to military grievances.

89 / 100

Q89. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. The Chola Empire is known for its contributions to Tamil literature and the construction of large temple complexes.
2. The Delhi Sultanate introduced new administrative practices, including the iqtadari system.
3. The British Raj in India was characterized by significant social and economic reforms including the abolition of sati and the introduction of modern education.

90 / 100

Q90. Consider the following statements:
1. The First Anglo-Burmese War ended with the Treaty of Yandabo in 1826.
2. As a result of the war, the British annexed the territories of Assam, Manipur, and Arakan.
3. The war was primarily fought over British control of the opium trade in Southeast Asia.
How many of the above statements are correct?

91 / 100

Q91. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Dynasty/Empire Contribution/Feature
1. Chola Empire Tamil literature and large temple complexes
2. Delhi Sultanate Iqtadari system and administrative practices
3. British Raj Abolition of sati and introduction of modern educa-tion

92 / 100

Q92. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The Chola Empire was notable for its contributions to Tamil literature and temple architecture, and the Delhi Sultanate introduced the iqtadari system.
Statement II: The British Raj introduced significant social reforms, including the abolition of sati and modern educa-tion.

93 / 100

Q93. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. The Treaty of Versailles ended World War I and imposed heavy reparations on Germany.
2. The Russian Revolution led to the establishment of a communist government under Vladimir Lenin.
3. The Cold War era was marked by a strategic rivalry between the United States and the Soviet Union.

94 / 100

Q94. Consider the following statements:
1. The Indigo Rebellion of 1859 was a protest against the oppressive practices of British planters.
2. The rebellion was primarily led by the Muslim peasantry of Bengal.
3. The movement resulted in the abolition of the indigo plantation system by the British government.
How many of the above statements are correct?

95 / 100

Q95. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Event/Period Detail/Impact
1. Treaty of Versailles Ended World War I and imposed reparations
2. Russian Revolution Established a communist government under Lenin
3. Cold War Era Strategic rivalry between the US and USSR

96 / 100

Q96. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The Treaty of Versailles imposed reparations on Germany, the Russian Revolution established a communist government, and the Cold War was marked by US-Soviet rivalry.
Statement II: The Treaty of Versailles did not affect Germany’s post-war economy.

97 / 100

Q97. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. The Mughals introduced a new system of land revenue administration known as the “Zabt” system.
2. The British East India Company’s conquest of Bengal was a turning point in establishing British dominance in India.
3. The Indian independence movement saw significant contributions from leaders like Subhas Chandra Bose and Jawaharlal Nehru.

98 / 100

Q98. Consider the following statements:
1. The Government of India Act of 1858 transferred the administration of India from the East India Company to the British Crown.
2. The Act also introduced the office of the Secretary of State for India.
3. The Act of 1858 provided for the establishment of a bicameral legislature in India.
How many of the above statements are correct?

99 / 100

Q99. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Dynasty/Period Contribution/Feature
1. Mughal Empire Zabt system of land revenue administration
2. British East India Company Conquest of Bengal and British dominance
3. Indian Independence Movement Contributions of Subhas Chandra Bose and Nehru

100 / 100

Q100. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The Mughals introduced the Zabt system, the British East India Company’s conquest of Bengal was crucial for British dominance, and the Indian independence movement saw contributions from Bose and Nehru.
Statement II: The Zabt system was not part of Mughal administration.

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PAITS-105

1 / 99

100. Which of the following statements about the impact of climate change on the Indian economy are correct?
a. Climate change affects agricultural productivity.
b. Climate change leads to increased frequency of natural disasters.
c. Climate change does not affect the industrial sector.
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2 / 99

99. Which of the following are the key features of the Indian labour market?
a. High degree of informal employment
b. Low participation of women in the workforce
c. Presence of a large unorganized sector
d. High rate of unemployment
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3 / 99

98. Which of the following statements about the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India are correct?
a. GST is a single tax on the supply of goods and services.
b. GST has replaced multiple indirect taxes levied by the central and state governments.
c. GST is applicable only to goods and not to services.
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4 / 99

97. Which of the following statements regarding the impact of FDI on the Indian economy are correct?
a. FDI leads to an inflow of foreign capital into the country.
b. FDI enhances the competitiveness of domestic industries.
c. FDI leads to the outflow of profits from the country.
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5 / 99

96. Which of the following measures are taken by the government to improve the ease of doing business in India?
a. Simplifying the business registration process
b. Reducing the number of permits required for starting a business
c. Introducing single-window clearance systems
d. Implementing land reforms
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6 / 99

95. Which of the following statements about the agricultural sector in India are correct?
a. Agriculture is the primary source of livelihood for the majority of the rural population.
b. The agricultural sector contributes more than 50% of India’s GDP.
c. Agricultural productivity in India is constrained by several factors, including outdated farming techniques.
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7 / 99

94. Consider the following statements about monetary policy in India:
a. The RBI is responsible for formulating and implementing monetary policy.
b. Monetary policy aims to control inflation and stabilize the currency.
c. Monetary policy includes both fiscal and monetary measures.
How many of the above statements are correct?

8 / 99

93. Which of the following measures are taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to control inflation?
a. Raising the repo rate
b. Increasing the cash reserve ratio
c. Lowering the statutory liquidity ratio
d. Open market operations
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9 / 99

91. Which of the following statements regarding the impact of GST on small businesses are correct?
a. GST has simplified the tax structure for small businesses.
b. Small businesses are exempt from paying GST.
c. GST has introduced a single tax system replacing multiple indirect taxes.
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10 / 99

90. Which of the following are the objectives of the National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (NREGS)?
a. To provide guaranteed wage employment to rural households.
b. To create durable assets and infrastructure in rural areas.
c. To reduce urban migration by providing employment in rural areas.
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11 / 99

89. Consider the following statements about the impact of inflation on the economy:
a. Inflation erodes the purchasing power of money.
b. High inflation can lead to increased interest rates.
c. Inflation benefits creditors by reducing the real value of debt.
How many of the above statements are correct?

12 / 99

88. Which of the following statements regarding the Indian banking sector are correct?
a. The Indian banking sector is regulated by the RBI and SEBI.
b. The RBI is responsible for the formulation and implementation of monetary policy.
c. The Indian banking sector includes both public sector and private sector banks.
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13 / 99

87. Which of the following statements about the Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) Act are correct?
a. The APMC Act regulates the marketing of agricultural produce in India.
b. It provides for the establishment of regulated markets for agricultural produce.
c. The APMC Act aims to eliminate the role of intermediaries in the marketing process.
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14 / 99

86. Which of the following are considered as primary sectors in the Indian economy?
a. Agriculture
b. Mining
c. Manufacturing
d. Services
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15 / 99

85. Which of the following are the main features of the Indian tax system?
a. Progressive taxation
b. Regressive taxation
c. Direct taxes and indirect taxes
d. Flat tax rate for all income levels
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16 / 99

84. Which of the following statements are true regarding the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003?
a. It aims to reduce fiscal deficit and improve fiscal management.
b. It mandates the government to set targets for reducing the fiscal deficit.
c. It was enacted to enhance transparency in budget management.
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17 / 99

83. Consider the following statements about economic liberalization in India:
a. Economic liberalization started in India in 1991.
b. The main goal was to reduce government control and promote private sector participation.
c. It led to the nationalization of major industries.
How many of the above statements are correct?

18 / 99

82. Which of the following are the key features of the Indian economic system?
a. Mixed economy
b. Market economy
c. Command economy
d. Capitalist economy
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19 / 99

81. Which of the following is/are considered as a part of the formal financial system in India?
a. Commercial Banks
b. Cooperative Banks
c. Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs)
d. Microfinance Institutions (MFIs)
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20 / 99

80. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the Public Sector Banks (PSBs) in India?
1. PSBs are owned and operated by the central government.
2. PSBs have a dominant share in the total banking sector assets.
3. PSBs are required to maintain higher capital adequacy ratios compared to private sector banks.
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21 / 99

79. Which of the following are benefits of foreign direct investment (FDI)?
a. Creation of new job opportunities
b. Transfer of technology and management expertise
c. Strengthening of the local currency
d. Improvement in infrastructure
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22 / 99

78. Which of the following are the main components of the Balance of Payments (BoP) in India?
a. Current Account
b. Capital Account
c. Financial Account
d. Direct Investment Account
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23 / 99

77. Consider the following statements about the Consumer Price Index (CPI):
a. CPI measures the average change over time in the prices paid by urban consumers for a market basket of consumer goods and services.
b. CPI is used to calculate the inflation rate.
c. The CPI includes only food and beverage items.
How many of the above statements are correct?

24 / 99

76. Which of the following are objectives of the National Skill Development Mission (NSDM)?
a. Enhancing the employability of the workforce
b. Developing industry-specific skill development programs
c. Promoting self-employment and entrepreneurship
d. Providing loans to skilled workers
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25 / 99

75. Which of the following statements about the Indian Stock Market is/are correct?
a. The National Stock Exchange (NSE) and Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) are the primary stock exchanges in India.
b. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) regulates the stock exchanges.
c. The stock market in India operates on a non-electronic system.
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26 / 99

74. Which of the following measures are adopted by the government to promote exports?
a. Export Credit Guarantee Corporation (ECGC) insurance
b. Duty Drawback Scheme
c. Merchandise Export from India Scheme (MEIS)
d. Import substitution policies
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27 / 99

73. Which of the following statements about the fiscal deficit in India is/are correct?
a. Fiscal deficit measures the gap between the government’s total revenue and total expenditure.
b. A high fiscal deficit can lead to inflationary pressures in the economy.
c. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBM) mandates a target for fiscal deficit.
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28 / 99

72. Which of the following statements is/are true about the National Financial Switch (NFS)?
a. It is a network that connects all ATMs in India.
b. It is managed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).
c. It facilitates interbank transactions and settlements.
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29 / 99

71. Which of the following is/are considered as a component of fiscal policy in India?
a. Taxation policies
b. Public debt management
c. Interest rates
d. Government spending
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30 / 99

70. Consider the following pairs:
a. Initiative : Objective
b. MUDRA : Micro-financing of small businesses
c. PM-KISAN : Direct income support to farmers
d. FDI Policy : Attracting foreign investment in retail
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

31 / 99

69. Which of the following are the goals of the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)?
a. Providing financial services to the unbanked population.
b. Creating awareness about digital banking.
c. Increasing the number of bank branches in rural areas.
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32 / 99

68. Which of the following statements regarding inflation targeting by the RBI is/are correct?
a. The RBI sets an inflation target for a specified period.
b. Inflation targeting helps in stabilizing prices and guiding monetary policy.
c. The target is set by the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC).

33 / 99

67. Which of the following are included in the definition of capital formation?
a. Investment in infrastructure projects
b. Purchase of new machinery by firms
c. Household savings deposited in banks
d. Public expenditure on education
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34 / 99

66. Which of the following is/are the primary functions of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
a. Issuing currency notes
b. Regulating foreign exchange reserves
c. Controlling inflation through monetary policy
d. Managing government accounts
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35 / 99

65. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India?
a. GST was implemented to replace the existing system of indirect taxation.
b. GST is a single tax levied on the supply of goods and services.
c. GST has eliminated the cascading effect of taxes in the previous system.
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36 / 99

64. Which of the following are objectives of the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA)?
a. Providing at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to every rural household.
b. Enhancing livelihood security in rural areas by creating sustainable assets.
c. Ensuring urban employment opportunities for the economically weaker sections.
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37 / 99

63. Consider the following pairs:
a. Initiative : Objective
b. Digital India : Promoting e-governance
c. Skill India : Increasing the number of skilled workers
d. Make in India : Reducing imports
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

38 / 99

62. Consider the following statements about monetary policy in India:
a. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) uses interest rates as a tool to control inflation.
b. The RBI’s monetary policy is guided by the recommendations of the Monetary Policy Committee.
c. The RBI has no role in regulating the money supply in the economy.
How many of the above statements are correct?

39 / 99

61. In the context of Indian economic development, which of the following are considered as major sources of reve-nue for the central government?
a. Direct Taxes
b. Indirect Taxes
c. Grants from States
d. Borrowings from the Public
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40 / 99

60. Which of the following is an impact of high inflation on an economy?

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59. Consider the following pairs related to economic strategies:
1. Import Substitution Industrialization (ISI): Encourages domestic production of goods that were previously imported.
2. Export-Oriented Industrialization (EOI): Focuses on increasing exports to drive economic growth.
3. Keynesian Economics: Advocates for government intervention to manage economic cycles.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

42 / 99

58. Which of the following is not a common measure of economic development?

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57. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian fiscal policy:
1. Fiscal policy includes government decisions on taxation and public spending.
2. The primary objective of fiscal policy is to control inflation and stabilize the economy.
3. Fiscal policy decisions are implemented by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
How many of the above statements are correct?

44 / 99

56. Which of the following is a correct measure to enhance economic efficiency in a market economy?

45 / 99

55. Consider the following statements:
1. The Market Price is the price at which goods and services are traded in the market.
2. The Equilibrium Price is determined by the interaction of supply and demand.
3. In a seller’s market, demand exceeds supply, leading to higher prices.
How many of the above statements are correct?

46 / 99

54. Which of the following economic policies aims to control inflation?

47 / 99

53. Consider the following statements related to the balance of payments:
1. The current account records a country’s transactions with the rest of the world, including trade in goods and services.
2. The capital account reflects the flow of capital, including foreign investment and loans.
3. A positive balance in the current account indicates that a country exports more than it imports.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

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52. Which of the following is an example of a non-tariff barrier to trade?

49 / 99

51. Consider the following statements regarding economic globalization:
1. Economic globalization refers to the increasing interdependence of national economies through trade and in-vestment.
2. It involves the movement of goods, services, and capital across international borders.
3. Globalization always leads to equal benefits for all countries involved.
How many of the above statements are correct?

50 / 99

50. Which of the following is not a part of the Indian Government’s economic stimulus measures?

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